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Girsanov's theorem and switching to risk neutrality

Question

What does Girsanov's theorem say, and why is it so important for derivatives pricing?

Short answer

Changing to an equivalent measure shifts the drift of a Brownian motion but leaves its volatility unchanged. If WW is a P\mathbb{P}-Brownian motion and Q\mathbb{Q} has density exp⁡(−∫θ dW−12∫θ2dt)\exp\big(-\int\theta\,dW-\tfrac12\int\theta^2dt\big), then Wt+∫0tθs dsW_t+\int_0^t\theta_s\,ds is a Q\mathbb{Q}-Brownian motion. In finance this lets us replace the real-world drift μ\mu with the risk-free rate, so prices become discounted expectations under the risk-neutral measure, and it underpins numeraire changes and importance sampling.

Adapted from Wilmott, Frequently Asked Questions in Quantitative Finance, FAQ 24, p.107; question and answer rewritten by SelfMadeQuant.com.

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