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How many chips so every cookie gets one

Question

A baker mixes NN chocolate chips into dough for 100100 cookies, and each chip independently ends up in any of the 100100 cookies with equal probability. What is the smallest NN for which there is at least a 90%90\% chance that no cookie is chip-free?

Short answer

N=683N=683. By inclusion–exclusion, P(all covered)=∑j(−1)j(100j)(1−j100)N\mathbb{P}(\text{all covered})=\sum_{j}(-1)^j\binom{100}{j}(1-\tfrac{j}{100})^N, which first reaches 0.90.9 at N=683N=683. A quick estimate uses the expected number of empty cookies: 100(0.99)N≈0.1100(0.99)^N\approx0.1 gives N≈ln⁡1000/0.01≈690N\approx\ln 1000/0.01\approx690.

Adapted from Crack, Heard on the Street, Q4.32, p.43; question and answer rewritten by SelfMadeQuant.com.

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