Delta of a one-year at-the-money call at 6% rates
Question
A one-year European call is struck at the current stock price; the rate is and the stock pays no dividends. Is its delta larger or smaller than , and what determines this?
Short answer
Larger than . At the money , so . Both the positive rate (the forward sits above the strike) and the term from lognormal skew push it up.
Adapted from Crack, Heard on the Street, Q2.5, p.24; question and answer rewritten by SelfMadeQuant.com.
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Open the worked solutionLessons behind this question
- Greeks and Numerical Sensitivities
- Derivation — From Binomial Trees to Black-Scholes in the Continuous Limit
- The Black-Scholes Formula Derived via Change of Measure
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